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CJ's avatar
Apr 8Edited

It is always interesting to meditate on such a wonder-ful (in the true sense of the word) marriage.

You wrote: "Such a solemn vow when taken before marriage invalidates the marriage, but not if taken subsequently. Everyone is at liberty to deny himself in regard to what belongs to him."

You also wrote: "both Mary and Joseph had made simple, conditional vows of virginity before their marriage,"

So reflecting on this, I guess I am still not understanding how the marriage was valid (I mean, I know that is was, but I don't understand the technicality of how it was)? Because both Joseph and Mary had taken vows of virginity prior to the marriage, and as you wrote, this invalidates the marriage?

One explanation I heard once was that under Jewish law (which both would have still be under), the regulations were a bit different. But I'm not sure this satisfies my understanding either - or maybe I just need it more fully explained.

I would appreciate hearing any further thoughts you have on this.

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